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Messages - The Sh*t Detector

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There are only two pleas: GUILTY and NOT GUILTY.

A plea of GUILTY/GUILT is correct. Innocence is PRESUMED, therefore--from a legal perspective--an accused will never need to plea INNOCENT/INNOCENCE. For this reason, our Courts use the terms "guilty" and "not guilty" during arraignments and handing down of verdicts.

So--with all due respect to everyone in this thread--let's presume innocence and discuss only the grammatical merits of "plea of guilt" or "plea of guilty." ;D

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You Asked Me This Question / Re: Virtually
« on: August 22, 2010, 08:09:21 PM »
Thank you for this explanation, Mr. Carillo. Some writers use the word LITERALLY when the intended meaning is that of VIRTUALLY or PRACTICALLY. For example, "He literally picked the stars from the heavens and gave them to his wife." These writers ought to read your explanation here.  ;D

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Use and Misuse / Mood swings
« on: May 25, 2010, 11:15:29 AM »
Hello, Mr. Carillo!

I always read articles in the Lifestyle and Travel section of a major newspaper, and I often notice changes in the mood of the verb--indicative to imperative--even in the same paragraph.

For example, after a paragraph written in the indicative mood, the next paragraph of an article read:

"Don't forget the guyabano, we must eat plenty of them. Everyone has heard of [the] guyabano's medicinal properties...."

Aside from committing a comma-splice error, the writer changed the mood. Is it an error to shift from one mood to another when writing an article?

Thanks!

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